Except, he didn't say this.

He said: "And if you want to get down to nut-cuttin’ time, across the board, it’s poor people who are killed by police. (And by the way, around 96 percent of people killed by police are men.)"

What does that mean quantitatively? What's it based on?

It just means after looking at lots of news stories, his general impression was that most of the people he encountered seemed to be from a poor background, so what does "most" translate to? 51 percent? 60 percent? 90 percent?

One of the first cases referenced in that story was a white college student who doesn't exactly look poor to me.

https://www.nydailynews.com/news/national/video-shows-ala-teen-fatal-shooting-article-1.1181371

In any case, it's certainly not 100 percent, which is what is assumed by that blog you cited to back up the claim that poor Black and white people are killed at exactly the same rate. That is the claim I'm trying to get you to show evidence for.

In Seattle, where I live, the victims of 33 percent of police shootings are Black in a city that's 7 percent Black. I know for a fact that they're not all poor because I've actually looked at the cases. I know police have shot middle-class college students.

Gut feelings aren't empirical evidence. The history of science is full of cases where people developed common sense notions about the world based on casual observations that were later overturned by research using a more rigorous process.